I'm sure that as you
read through the New Testament in your Bible, you notice that it talks about
sons (and not daughters), brothers (and not sisters).
Newer translations
add the feminine gender because we all know that the New Testament writers
meant to include women. But the question of "why?" remains. Why
didn't the NT writers, as God moved them to write the Bible, originally include
women?
I listened to a
sermon by Tim Keller recently in which he said a woman in his congregation
shared some of her thoughts on this topic. What she shared made perfect sense:
In the secular
society in which the Bible was written, women weren't treated as a man's equal.
While we read in the Bible that men and women are equal at the foot of the
cross (Galatians 3:28; 1 Peter 3:7; etc.), that was an outlandish claim in the
first century. To say that the husband's duty was to love his wife
sacrificially, putting her needs and desires above his own (Ephesians 5:25-31),
was crazy talk. Why? Because, women were about as valuable as slaves in that
time period.
So, we see over and
over that the Bible elevated the value of women. Yet, at the same time, we see
the New Testament writers (whose audience was men AND women) talking about sons
and brothers (not daughters and sisters).
Why?
Could it be that as
God moved the writers of Scripture to address the first century crowd, He
desired to speak their language? Could it be that in a culture that valued sons
(and not daughters), brothers (and not sisters) that God desired to leave no
ambiguity regarding the value of women by referring to them as "sons"
and "brothers"
___________________
After posting the
previous comments to my Facebook page, I felt the need to elaborate on the
necessity of God to speak our language when He communicates with us. So, I wrote:
In defense of my
original post, I would say that communication requires two activities: 1)
speaking and 2) hearing to understand. If someone speaks but does not do so in
a way that others can hear and understand, true communication has not taken
place.
In God's Word, He
has not simply spoken. He has done so in ways that we can understand. In fact,
if He had not condescended to our level, there is no way that we could fathom
the eternal truths of Scripture. Further, if we couldn't understand, one could logical
ask, "What's the point? Why did He even bother to pen Scripture if we
cannot understand it?"
It was absolutely
necessary for God to speak in ways that we could understand because...
God: “For my
thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, declares the
LORD. For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than
your ways and my thoughts than your thoughts.” (Isaiah 55:8-9)
So, in order to
communicate eternal truth to us about Himself, us, our world, sin, judgment,
atonement, eternity, etc., God had to speak on a level in which His hearers
could understand.
Thus, we see Jesus
often using agricultural themes in His parables when He was speaking to a
people who were very agricultural. If He had used 21st century technology
themes, it would have made no sense to His first century hearers and
communication would not have taken place.
Further, we see God
often using what theologians calls anthropomorphisms (ascribing human body
parts to God) and anothropopathisms (ascribing human emotions to God) in
Scripture. We seriously doubt that God the Father has literal arms and legs and
yet Isaiah 59:1-2 says that He does. Isn’t that God simply describing Himself
in a way that we can understand? We also seriously doubt that God repents/does
an ‘about face’ like us. Yet, passages like Exodus 32:14; 2 Samuel 24:16; Jonah
3:10 and others say that He does. The only way we can possibly understand these
passages and many others is to realize that for God to communicate with us, He
needed to talk in a language and in a way that we could understand. He needed
to use our language and our way of thinking.
So, this is the
point I was making in my original post. God desired to communicate with us. To
do so, He needed to speak our language (by speaking of "brothers" and
"son" to a culture who knew exactly what He was talking about). I have
listed a few other obvious ways that He has done so in Scripture. There are
many others. But the point is clear – our God loved us to much that He came
into our world, spoke our language, communicated in a way that we could
understand so that we can come to know Him, submit to Him and enjoy Him for
eternity.
___________________
As clarification,
for those who may have read my comment on God not have human body parts:
The Bible is clear
that Jesus is God incarnate (in the flesh). He is God with human body parts. In
fact, I believe that when we see an Old Testament human figure that is ascribed
deity (see Genesis 18:1-3ff; Daniel 3:24-25; etc.) that we are looking at Jesus.
Further, when we
look into the future (eternity) and we realize that as Jesus ascended into
Heaven He took his resurrection body (Acts 1:9-11), we are led to believe that
Jesus will maintain His bodily form in Heaven.
Yet, God the Father
still seems shrouded in mystery. His ways and thoughts are so high above us
that we cannot possibly comprehend Him. That being the case, it was absolutely
necessary for God to send His Son to us because Jesus is the One who shows us what
God is like (John 14:9; Hebrews 1:3; etc.).
Again, this gets
back to my original point. God the Father is so far above us that in order to
communicate to us who He is and what He's like, He needed to speak in a way
that we could hear and understand. So, He sent Jesus into our world. Jesus was
God's communication to us (communication requires words so it is significant
that Jesus is called "The Word")...
"In the
beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
(John 1:1)
"And the Word
became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the
only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth." (John 1:14)
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